KAS pub.administration prelims 2010 question paper

Posted: June 28, 2010 in syllabus_2010
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PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION – BOOKLET A (SERIES)

  1. which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1. new public administration Dwight Waldo
2. development administration Edward Weidner
3. comparative p.a. Vincent Ostrom
4. critical theory Jurgen Habermas
  1. “ administration cannot be divorced from its connection with the other branches of public law without being distorted & robbed of its true significance. Its foundations are those deep & permanent principles of politics”. This statement is attributed to –
  2. l. d. white, as a criticism to the politics-administration dichotomy
  3. john rawls, to provide an operating logic for the determination of public interests by decision makers.
  4. Woodrow Wilson, to highlight the fact that public administration was essentially political in nature.
  5. Robert Dahl, to highlight the fact that public administration cannot be made into a science.
  1. given below are four contributors to the academic study of p.a. who of them had the least direct effect on the discipline?
  2. f. w. Taylor
  3. Henry fayol
  4. gulick & urwick
  5. Mooney & reiley
  1. the final stage of evolution of public administration concentrated on
  2. developing institutions for study of p.a.
  3. outlining the relation of public administration with other social sciences.
  4. demarcating a specific sphere of operation for public administration.
  5. public policy perspective.

5. which of the following schools is essentially a critique of weberian model of administration?

1. new public administration

2. development administration school

3. critical theory

4. human relations school

6.the modern age has been the emergence of the

1. democratic state

2. welfare state

3. administrative state

4. laissez faire state

7. in a developing society like that of India the dominant role of public administration is one of

1. law & order

2. revenue mobilization

3. socio-economic reconstruction

4. participative management

8. dual hierarchy is defined as

1. having a  number of staff & line supervisors

2. having a single line supervisor but a number of staff supervisors

3. having a parallel chain of command

4. receiving orders from more than two people

9. the origin of the ‘psychological’ approach to public administration can be traced to

1. gaus & Walcott

2. m. p. follet

3. brownlow

4. Herbert Simon

10. the most formidable discretion of the principles of administration appeared in which of the following works?

1. elements of administration by f. m. Marx

2. a study of decision making by Simon

3. trends in public administration by john gaus

4. papers on the science of administration by gulick & urwick

11. which of the following schools does not subscribe to the managerial view of administration?

1. neo classical school

2. scientific management

3. behavioral school

4. public policy school

12. which of the following schools opposed politics administration dichotomy?

a. public choice school

b. critical school

c. classical school

d. neo classical school

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a & b

2. b & c

3. a,b & c

4. b,c & d.

13. match list I with list II & select the answer from the codes given below:

List I List II
A . philosophy of administration 1. Dwight waldo
B. introduction to study of public administration 2. l. d. white
C. public administration in turbulence 3. f. m. Marx
D. elements of public administration 4. dimock

Codes:

A – B – C – D

1 = 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

2 = 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

3 = 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

4 = 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

14. arrange the following technique advanced by Taylor in a logical order:

a. motivation study

b. fixing of a standard

c. differential piece rate plan

d. time study

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a, b, c, d

2. d, c, b, a

3. a, d, b, c

4. d, a, c, b.

15. urwick’s principle of correspondence refers to:

1. fitting people to the structure

2. authority & responsibility

3. reporting

4 . fiscal balances.

16. according to Simon, principles of administration are useful only for

1. predicting human behavior

2. formulating organization structure

3. describing administrative situations

4. eliminating friction within the organizations

17. according to Taylor, conflict exists in any organization due to

1. improper division of responsibility

2. improper division of surplus

3. lack of scientific methodology

4. lack of cooperation

18. barnard distinguishes between efficiency & effectiveness in an organization. Efficiency in this context relates to

1. achieving organizational purpose

2. satisfying individual motives

3. adapting to the environment

4. motivating employees

19. according to max Weber, bureaucracy is superior to any other form of organization because

1. it ensures greater precision

2. it is relatively more stable

3. it ensures reliability

4. it fosters discipline throughout the organization

Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. a & d
  2. b & c
  3. a, c, d
  4. a,b,c,d

20. which of the following is not expected of a worker under scientific management?

1. accepting orders

2. acting as a feedback agent

3. initiating action on his own

4. increasing productivity

21. the “general systems theory” owes its origin to

1. max Weber

2. Ludwig von bertalanffy

3. Henry fayol

4. f. w. Taylor

22. leadership exists at all levels in an organization. At each level, different kinds of skills are required. A leader at the top management level requires

1. human skills

2. technical skills

3. conceptual skills

4. functional skills

23. which of the following is not a postulate of Henry Gantt?

1. management by objectives

2. emphasis on psychological & social needs of a worker

3. task & bonus system

4. flow process chart

24. obligation of obedience in a traditional authority system is based on

1. impersonal orders

2. personal orders

3. charismatic orders

4. legality orders

25. which of the following is not a feature of max Weber’s bureaucracy?

1. written documents

2. ownership of the means of production

3. right to appeal by the lower office to the higher office

4. specialized knowledge

26. graicunas theory calls for

a. a narrow span of control

b. a wide span of control

c. a tall organization structure

d. a flat organization structure

which of the following statements are correct?

1. a, c

2. b, c

3. a, d

4. b, d

27. the term ‘scalar’ is used to refer the hierarchy in an organization. ‘scalar’ primarily refers to which of the following agencies?

1. line agencies

2. staff agencies

3. line & staff agencies

4. auxiliary agencies

28. theory Y of McGregor postulates

A. all human relations are transactional

B. rational-emotional man

C. extrinsic motivation

D. internal control

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. a & b

2. a b & c

3. a b & d

4. a b c d

29. span of control in an organization is affected by functions, time, space & personality. In the context of which of the above factors has urwick advanced his concept of direct supervision & access to the boss?

1. function

2. personality

3. age of the organization

4. space.

30. the first enquiry of mayo refers to the

1. bank wiring study

2. relay assembly room experiment

3. illumination experiment

4. textile mill experiment

31. which of the following concepts are associated with Chris argyris?

a. self-actualization

b. personalizing progress

c. sensitivity training

d. strategic factors in decision-making

select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. a b d

2. a b c d

3. a b c

4. b c d

32. linkage between the means & ends is provided by the principle of

1. unity of command

2. span of control

3. coordination

4. command

33. consider the following statements:

A. neo classical theory negates the classical theory

B. classical theory provides the first approximation to organizational design, the neo classical theory provides a second more refined approximation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. only a

2. only b

3. both a b

4. neither a nor b

34. a section officer in the regional transport authority issues a temporary license to an applicant. The decision taken by him can be most appropriately described as

1. a programmed decision

2. a non- programmed decision

3. an organizational decision

4.  a basic decision

35. intelligence activity involves

1. analyzing & understanding the environment

2. identifying merits & de-merits of various alternatives

3. identifying the best alternative

4. review of past decisions.

36. the concept of job enrichment owes its origin to

1. Fredrick herzberg

2. Abraham maslow

3. Douglas mc gregor

4. Chris argyris

37. Abraham maslow has pronounced a sequential arrangement of needs. Which of the following depicts the correct arrangement?

1. physiological, esteem, psychological, self-actualization, meta motivation

2. physiological, safety, love, status, self- actualization

3. safety, self- actualization, love, physiological

4. physiological, love, status, safety, self- actualization .

38. the speaker applies guillotine to the demands for grants

1. after the demands are discussed & approved

2. after the demands are discussed & voted

3. when demands are discussed & reduced

4. when the time allotted is coming to a close for noting of demands.

39. according to barnard, motivation can be explained,

1. zone of indifference

2. inducements contribution

3. cooperative behavior

4. fictional nature of authority

40. in which of the following issues do maslow & herzberg differ?

a. order of needs

b. emphasis

c. essence of the theory

d. need-motivation relation

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a, b

2. b, c, d

3. a, c, d

4. a, b, c, d

41. communicating according to the behavioral school is closely interwoven with

1. hierarchy

2. authority

3. centralization

4. span of control

42. which of the following theories propounds a humanistic style of leadership?

1. theory-X

2. theory-Y

3. immaturity-maturity theory

4. scientific management theory

43. halo effect is related to

1. decision making

2. communication

3. leadership

4. motivation.

44. the most hygiene factor in the organizational context is

1. company policy

2. working condition

3. salary

4. relationship with peers.

45. the grape-vine is

1. a hierarchy of informal relations

2. tendency of people to cut across formal channels of communication

3. an informal channel of communication within a formal organization

4. a secret channel of communication

46. the purpose of writ of habeas corpus is

1. to ensure compliance of an official duty

2. to prevent a lower court from usurping jurisdiction

3. to enquiry into the legality of claim to a public office

4.  bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.

47. zero hour in India originated in the year

1. 1962

2. 1955

3. 1966

4. 1963

48. consider the following statements :

A . the public accounting committee was first set up In India in the year 1925.

B . the public accounts committee examines the report of the controller general of accounts.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

1. only a

2. only b

3. both a & b

4. neither a & b

49. the estimates committee in independent India was established in the year

1. 1950

2. 1953

3. 1956

4. 1960

50. which of the following articles of the constitution confers the writ making power on the high courts?

1. 32

2. 226

3. 323

4. 292

51. a matter of urgent importance is brought to the notice of the house through a/an

1. starred question

2. adjournment motion

3. cut motion

4. no confidence motion

52. why are supplementary questions asked?

1. to bring to the notice of a ministry an anomaly in the execution of a policy

2. to question the government’s propriety in a matter

3. to elicit additional information from the government

4. to bring to the attention the cases of non-compliance with the directive issued.

53. a parliamentary committee presents its report to

1. the speaker

2. the president

3. the prime minister

4. the attorney general of India

54. ministers

A. can be members of financial committees

B. can be asked to give evidence before the committees

C. cannot be members of the committees

D. cannot be asked to give evidence before the committees.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. a, b

2. b, c

3. c, d

4. a, d

55. the modern civil service in great Britain can trace its origin to the

1. Fulton report

2. northcote – trevelyan report

3. crowther-hunt report

4. mc Donald report

56. which of the following are the most important training centers for civil servants in France?

a. ecole normale superieure

b. ecole polytechnique

c. ecole centrals des arts et manufactures

d. ecole nationale d’ administration

57. on the administrative side of the French civil service the highest status belong to

1. grand’s corps

2. corps-des-mines

3. corps-des-telecommunications

4. corps-des-ponts et chausses

58. in France, there are four categories of local government. Choose the correct order:

1. Anton, arrondissement, department and commune

2. department, arrondissement, canton & commune

3. arrondissement, department, commune & canton

4. arrondissement, commune, department & canton.

59. the idea of a senior civil service in usa on the lines of the British administrative class was first recommended by

1. 1st Hoover commission

2. 2nd Hoover commission

3. Taft commission

4. Maxwell commission

60. the Pendleton act introduced the merit system in the usa. Which of the following acts extends the merit systems?

1. hatch act

2. Pendleton act

3. ram speck act

4. Taft act

61. attachment to both public & private organizations is a feature of training of civil servants in

1. India

2. France

3. UK

4. Japan

62. lateral entry of civil service is a predominant feature of

1. u s a

2. Japan

3. u k

4. France

63. shadow cabinet in Britain refers to

1. the existence of a cabinet in the opposition

2. the existence of a hung parliament

3. the cabinet that is a subsidiary to the monarchy

4. a cabinet that is subject to the rule of law.

64. in England, civil service college was established in

1. 1960

2. 1969

3. 1860

4. 1869

65. according to whom, is the civil service a professional body of officials, permanent, paid & skilled?

1. tomlin commission

2. Herman finer

3. j. h. Whitley

4. mc Donald committee

66. the principle of anonymity of the civil servants arises out of the

1. principles of impersonality

2. principles of ministerial responsibility

3. principle of professionality

4. principle of neutrality

67. the process of job description does not call for

1. information concerning duties of the position

2. grouping positions into classes

3. requirement of skill for the performance of duties

4. information concerning the responsibilities of the position

68. in position classification, which of the following forms the logical group for the setting of pay scales?

1. responsibilities & duties

2. classes

3. grades

4. positions

69. the essence of promotion is

1. change of title

2. change of duty

3. change of assignment

4. change of duties & responsibilities

70. the process of identification & grouping together services on the basis of similarities is referred to

1. personnel administration

2. selection

3. recruitment

4. classification

71. which of the following is not correctly matched?

1. caste bureaucracy – 18th century British civil service

2. guardian bureaucracy – 16th century Chinese civil service

3. patronage bureaucracy – 19th century Prussian civil service

4. patronage bureaucracy – 19th century American civil service

72. advancement involves

1. change of assignment

2. greater responsibilities

3.  an increase in pay

4. change of title

73. which of the following types of classification is regarded as traditional classification?

1. classification based on duties

2. classification based on political status

3. classification based on responsibilities & duties

4. classification based on rank & personal status

74. which of the following is considered to be the friend, philosopher & guide of the public accounts committee?

1. the attorney general of India

2. the solicitor general of India

3. the finance minister

4. the comptroller & auditor general of India

75. the administrative head of a department in great Britain is

1. the deputy secretary

2. the permanent secretary

3. the director

4. the prefect

76. demands for grants are voted by the

1. lok sabha

2. rajya sabha

3. public accounts committee

4. estimates committee

77. which of the following is not a department in the ministry of finance?

1. department of economic affairs

2. department of expenditure

3. department of revenue

4. department of banking

78. when a department is required to present evidence before the public accounts committee it is presented by

1. the administrative head of the department

2. the executive head of the department

3. the joint secretary of the department

4. the financial advisor to the department

79. which of the following is incorrectly matched?

1. policy cut – ventilation of grievance

2. economy cut – reduction by a specific amount

3. token cut – reduction by an insignificant amount

4. guillotine – voting without discussion

80. which of the following is not feature of the procedure in parliament with respect to estimates?

1. introduction of estimates charged to the consolidated fund of India

2. voting on estimates made from the consolidated fund of India

3. voting on estimates charged to the consolidated fund of India

4. consent of the lok sabha on a demand for grant.

81. performance budgeting in India owes its origin to

1. gopalaswamy Ayyangar report

2. 1st Hoover commission

3. administrative reforms

4. Paul Appleby report

82. the rule of lapse is a tool of

1. executive control

2. legislative control

3. judicial control

4. administrative control

83. the 3-tier system of cabinet minister-minister of state-deputy minister has been recommended by

1. administrative reforms commission (ARC)

2. Paul Appleby

3. gorwala

4. Krishna menon

84. which of the following is not a function of the planning commission?

1. assess resources

2. propose allocation of resource

3. appraisal of the execution of the plan

4. establish machinery for execution of the plan at various levels

85. the planning commission was set up on the recommendation of

A. shriman narayan agarwal

B m. n. Roy

C m. vishweshwaraya

D jamnalal bajaj

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a, b

2. c d

3. a b c

4. none of the above

86. the concept of memorandum of understanding with reference to the public enterprises, owes its origin to

1. the Krishna menon report

2. the ashok Mehta committee report

3. the arjun sengupta committee

4. the morarji desai committee report

87. the system of police administration in India owes its existence to the reforms in the administrative system

1. warren Hastings

2. Cornwallis

3. Wellesley

4. Dalhousie

88. the inter-state council was established by

1. an executive order

2. a resolution of the cabinet secretariat

3. a constitutional provision

4. a law passed by parliament

89. a financial emergency proclaimed by the president is in operation for

1. 6 months unless ratified by parliament

2. 2 months unless ratified by lok sabha

3. 6 months unless ratified by lok sabha

4. 2 months unless ratified by parliament

90. the state representation division is a part of the

1. cabinet secretariat

2. ministry of home affairs

3. ministry of personnel

4. ministry of finance

91. who of the following forced the servants of the company to sign covenants which bound them with certain rules & regulation?

1. lord Cornwallis

2. lord Wellesley

3. warren Hastings

4. Robert Clive

92. the governor-general who followed the policy of keep Indians out from the civil service was

1. lord William bentinck

2. lord john shore

3. lord Wellesley

4. lord Cornwallis

93. who of the following is considered as the “patron saint” of India’s civil servants?

1. lord Wellesley

2. sardar vallabhbhai Patel

3. lord Cornwallis

4. b. r. ambedkar

94. a new all India service can be created by the

1. parliament

2. state legislature & parliament

3. president on the advice of the prime minister

4. president on the advice of the prime minister & the governors of the various states.

95. the cadre controlling authority of the Indian administrative service is

1. the UPSC

2. the ministry of home

3. the ministry of personnel, public grievances and pensions

4. the cabinet secretariat

96. which of the following is not a generalist civil service?

1. Indian administrative service

2. Indian police service

3. central secretariat service

4. Indian revenue service

97. which of the following cadre controlling authorities of the services is wrongly matched?

1. Indian police service – ministry of personnel

2. Indian foreign service – ministry of external affairs

3. Indian forest service – ministry of environment

4. Indian revenue service – ministry of finance

98. the district as a unit of administration in India is derived from the pattern of

1. prefecture – France

2. canton – France

3. borough – UK

4. department – USA

99. which of the following committees recommended constitutional status for the panchayati raj?

1. balwantrai Mehta committee

2. santhanam committee

3. l. m. singhvi committee

4. g. v. k. rao committee

100. the committee that recommended that the developmental functions at the district level should be transferred from the collector to the panchayati raj

1. ashok Mehta committee

2. g. v. k. rao committee

3. the dantwala committee

4. the west Bengal administrative reforms committee

101. the advocate general of a state is appointed by

1. the president

2. the chief justice

3. the governor

4. the chief minister

102. the legislative council of a state can be abolished by

1. a resolution of the legislative assembly by a special majority

2. an executive order of the president

3. parliament under article 169

4. the rajya sabha by a special majority

103. the speaker of the legislative assembly addresses his resignation to

1. the governor

2. the chief minister

3. the deputy speaker

4. the chief justice of the high court.

104. district judges are appointed by

1. the governor under article 226

2. the president under article 230

3. the governor under article 233

4. the chief justice of high court

105. the contingency fund of a state is established by

1. the state legislature

2. the governor

3. the union legislature

4. the president

106. the responsibility of conducting census operations in a district rests with

1. the deputy commissioner-census operations

2. the chief electoral officer of the state

3. the district collector

4. the superintendent of police

107. which of the following is true regarding the office of the chief secretary?

A. he is the head of the civil service of the state.

B. he serves for a fixed tenure

C. he is the chief public relations officer of the government

D. he is the principle channel of communication between the state & union governments.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. a, d

2. b d

3. a b c

4. a c d

108. the chief secretaries conference is presided over by

1. the home minister

2. the cabinet secretary

3. the chief secretaries in rotation

4. the prime minister

109. the office of the district collector, as it exists in its present form, owes its origin to

1. the east India company

2. the karori faujdar of the mughal administration

3. the queen’s proclamation

4. the government of India act-1935

110. which of the following is an entirely nominated body?

1. municipal corporation

2. town area committee

3. notified area committee

4. cantonment board

Directions: the following 10 items consists of two statements, one labeled as the assertion (A) and the other labeled as the reason (R). you have to examine these two statements carefully & decide if the assertion (A) and the reason(R) are individually true & if so, whether the reason (R) is a correct explanation of the assertion (A). select the correct answers to the following 10 items from the codes given below & mark your answer sheet accordingly.

Codes :

1. both a and r are true and r is the correct explanation of a.

2. both a and r are true but r is not a correct explanation of a.

3. a is true, but r is false

4. a is false, but r is false.

111. assertion (A) – the study of public administration is a science according to classical thinkers.

Reason (R) – the organization & management of public administration is based on principles of universal application.

112. assertion (A) – according to barnard, material rewards are ineffective beyond the subsistence level.

Reason (R) – barnard believed in the concept of economic man.

113. assertion (A) – according to herzberg, satisfaction & dissatisfaction are independent dimensions.

Reason (R) – according to herzberg, satisfaction is affected by hygiene factors, dissatisfaction by motivators.

114. assertion (A) – the executive in India is controlled indirectly by the planning commission.

Reason (R) – the planning commission is a constitutional body.

115. assertion (A) – the USA has a written constitution.

Reason (R) – the USA is the classic home of federation.

116. assertion (A) – the traditional principle of a limited span of control is valid even today.

Reason (R) – the increasing use of automation in administration & the information revolution have increased the supervisor’s span of control.

117. assertion (A) – a strike by civil servants in India constitutes a breach of discipline.

Reason (R) – a strike by government servants in India is prohibited by law.

118. the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the president.

Reason (R) – the ministers are appointed by the prime minister in consultation with the president.

119. assertion (A) – the budget should be net & not gross

Reason (R) – gross budgeting means that all transactions both of receipts & expenditure should be fully shown.

120. assertion (A) – public service are open to both men and women

Reason (R) – public services prefer to recruit young persons.

Answers given below in pdf format please check it out.

[Solved] KAS-PA prelims Paper

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Comments
  1. Kiran Kumar.N says:

    Sir.

    I am taking KAS Exam please help some information

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